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312-38 Study Center & Braindumps 312-38 Torrent
Because the EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND (312-38) test has a restricted time constraint, time management must be exercised to get success. Only with enough practice one can answer real EC-COUNCIL 312-38 Exam Questions in a given amount of time. It has created three formats to aid EC-COUNCIL 312-38 applicants in practicing and organizing their time for this aim.
Related Certification Path: CND
The EC-Council Certified Network Defender designation is designed to validate the technical skills of network administrators who are constantly involved in managing network threats. Such individuals should be well versed with a wide range of concepts around this field including network topology, security policy, traffic, performance & utilization, and network components just to mention a few. As a Certified Network Defender, you will be expected to demonstrate your ability to apply network security controls, configure firewall and VPN, and analyze network vulnerabilities. As continuity and resilience of operations matter in today's IT world, this is the best validation that IT specialists, companies, and hiring managers should turn to. In a nutshell, the CND certification path is designed to validate the following individuals:
- Security Analysts;
- Network Security Engineers.
- Network Security Administrators;
- Network Administrators;
- Network Defense Technicians;
EC-COUNCIL EC-Council Certified Network Defender CND Sample Questions (Q194-Q199):
NEW QUESTION # 194
John works as an Incident manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network.
Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?
- A. Recovery
- B. Preparation
- C. Eradication
- D. Containment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Preparation is the first step in the incident handling process. It includes processes like backing up copies of all key data on a regular basis, monitoring and updating software on a regular basis, and creating and implementing a documented security policy. To apply this step a documented security policy is formulated that outlines the responses to various incidents, as a reliable set of instructions during the time of an incident. The following list contains items that the incident handler should maintain in the preparation phase i.e. before an incident occurs:
Establish applicable policies
Build relationships with key players
Build response kit
Create incident checklists
Establish communication plan
Perform threat modeling
Build an incident response team
Practice the demo incidents
Answer option A is incorrect. The Containment phase of the Incident handling process is responsible for supporting and building up the incident combating process. It ensures the stability of the system and also confirms that the incident does not get any worse. The Containment phase includes the process of preventing further contamination of the system or network, and preserving the evidence of the contamination.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Eradication phase of the Incident handling process involves the cleaning-up of the identified harmful incidents from the system. It includes the analyzing of the information that has been gathered for determining how the attack was committed. To prevent the incident from happening again, it is vital to recognize how it was conceded out so that a prevention technique is applied.
Answer option B is incorrect. Recovery is the fifth step of the incident handling process. In this phase, the Incident Handler places the system back into the working environment. In the recovery phase the Incident Handler also works with the questions to validate that the system recovery is successful. This involves testing the system to make sure that all the processes and functions are working normal. The Incident Handler also monitors the system to make sure that the systems are not compromised again. It looks for additional signs of attack.
NEW QUESTION # 195
Katie has implemented the RAID level that split data into blocks and evenly write the data to multiple hard drives but does not provide data redundancy. This type of RAID level requires a minimum of________in order to setup.
- A. Four drives
- B. Six drives
- C. Three drives
- D. Two drives
Answer: D
Explanation:
The RAID level that splits data into blocks and evenly writes the data to multiple hard drives without providing data redundancy is known as RAID 0. This RAID level is also referred to as striping. It requires a minimum of two drives to set up. RAID 0 enhances performance by allowing simultaneous read and write operations across the drives, but it does not offer any fault tolerance. If one drive fails, all data in the array is lost because there is no redundancy.
NEW QUESTION # 196
On which of the following OSI layers does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) work?
- A. Network
- B. Application
- C. Transport
- D. Data Link
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption program that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for data communication. PGP operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. This is because it is used to encrypt and decrypt texts, emails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to enhance the security of email communications. PGP provides these services by utilizing cryptographic privacy and authentication through a hybrid approach that combines symmetric and asymmetric encryption, which is implemented at the Application layer.
NEW QUESTION # 197
Which of the following are used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)
- A. Delphi technique
- B. Expert judgment
- C. Function point analysis
- D. Program Evaluation Review Technique (PERT)
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Delphi technique, expert judgment, and function point analysis are used as a cost estimating technique during the project planning stage. Delphi is a technique to identify potential risk. In this technique, the responses are gathered via a questionnaire from different experts and their inputs are organized according to their contents.
The collected responses are sent back to these experts for further input, addition, and comments. The final list of risks in the project is prepared after that. The participants in this technique are anonymous and therefore it helps prevent a person from unduly influencing the others in the group. The Delphi technique helps in reaching the consensus quickly. Expert judgment is a technique based on a set of criteria that has been acquired in a specific knowledge area or product area. It is obtained when the project manager or project team requires specialized knowledge that they do not possess. Expert judgment involves people most familiar with the work of creating estimates. Preferably, the project team member who will be doing the task should complete the estimates. Expert judgment is applied when performing administrative closure activities, and experts should ensure the project or phase closure is performed to the appropriate standards.
A function point is a unit of measurement to express the amount of business functionality an information system provides to a user. Function points are the units of measure used by the IFPUG Functional Size Measurement Method. The IFPUG FSM Method is an ISO recognized software metric to size an information system based on the functionality that is perceived by the user of the information system, independent of the technology used to implement the information system.
Answer option B is incorrect. A PERT chart is a project management tool used to schedule, organize, and coordinate tasks within a project. PERT stands for Program Evaluation Review Technique, a methodology developed by the U.S. Navy in the 1950s to manage the Polaris submarine missile program. A PERT chart presents a graphic illustration of a project as a network diagram consisting of numbered nodes (either circles or rectangles) representing events, or milestones in the project linked by labeled vectors (directional lines) representing tasks in the project. The direction of the arrows on the lines indicates the sequence of tasks.
NEW QUESTION # 198
Which of the following security models enable strict identity verification for every user or device attempting to access the network resources?
1. Zero-trust network model
2. Castle-and-Moat model
- A. 1 only
- B. None
- C. Both 1 and 2
- D. 2 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Zero-trust network model is designed to ensure strict identity verification for every user or device attempting to access network resources, regardless of whether they are inside or outside the network perimeter. This model operates on the principle of "never trust, always verify," which means that no one is trusted by default, and verification is required from everyone trying to gain access to resources on the network. On the other hand, the Castle-and-Moat model operates on the principle that once inside the network, users or devices are generally trusted. This model does not enforce strict identity verification for every user or device within the network, which is a fundamental difference from the Zero-trust model.
NEW QUESTION # 199
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